Discussion:Sole Proprietor Sale Recourse Debt Assumed
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| Revision as of 20:04, 18 February 2006 Riley2 (Talk | contribs) (If you are askin) ← Previous diff |
Current revision DianeOffutt (Talk | contribs) (Thanks Riley2.) |
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| {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Riley2|Date=18 February 2006|Text=If you are asking if a sole proprietor can claim a loss for business indebtedness for which he is and always was personally liable, the answer is no.}} | {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Riley2|Date=18 February 2006|Text=If you are asking if a sole proprietor can claim a loss for business indebtedness for which he is and always was personally liable, the answer is no.}} | ||
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| + | {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=DianeOffutt|Date=22 February 2006|Text=Thanks Riley2. After I sent the question to this forum I realized my error. I should have thought it out a bit more before sending. | ||
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Current revision
Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Sole Proprietor Sale Recourse Debt Assumed
DianeOffutt (talk|edits) said: | 18 February 2006 |
| Hi Everyone,
Boy this forum REALLY is taking off. I am hoping someone can shed some light on my current situation: My client, a Sole Prop (3 Yrs) family illness resulting in a quick sale. Sale of Business $20K, Assets Book Value $10K, FMV approx same. I am looking at this part of the sale as a Capital Gain Sec 1231 Assets 10K. Then the next part, my client has recourse debt $50K in the company name, but since a Sole Prop, my client 100% liable. The debt was originally $60K, but the past year paid down to $50K. Then I see an owner draw account showing $30K. My gut instinct, take the $50K subtract the owner draws of $30, resulting in a net $20K loss to my client. If I am right (and I hope I am) is it a Capital Loss, subject to $3K annual..OR is it an ordinary loss? I really will appreciate all feedback, especially if you can cite your reference (for my backup). I thank you in advance, Diane Offutt Accounting Connections, LLC Woodstock, Ga. 30189 | |
| 18 February 2006 | |
| If you are asking if a sole proprietor can claim a loss for business indebtedness for which he is and always was personally liable, the answer is no. | |
DianeOffutt (talk|edits) said: | 22 February 2006 |
| Thanks Riley2. After I sent the question to this forum I realized my error. I should have thought it out a bit more before sending.
Diane Offutt | |


