Discussion:Sec. 351 Transfer in advance of sale.

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Revision as of 02:06, 17 August 2006
Dennis (Talk | contribs)
(Given the abilit)
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Revision as of 04:41, 17 August 2006
MSTguy (Talk | contribs)
(This isn't exact)
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{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Dennis|Date=17 August 2006|Text=Given the ability to liquidate the corp and use the $90K business bad debt to offset capital gain on sale, I don't see the application of [[Reg. 1.482-1]]. Guy wants to keep the Corporation.}} {{ForumReplyPost|UserID=Dennis|Date=17 August 2006|Text=Given the ability to liquidate the corp and use the $90K business bad debt to offset capital gain on sale, I don't see the application of [[Reg. 1.482-1]]. Guy wants to keep the Corporation.}}
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 +{{ForumReplyPost|UserID=MSTguy|Date=17 August 2006|Text=This isn't exactly on point, but it just sounds similar enough to me. In Foster, the IRS "concluded that it could use Code Sec. 482 to reallocate gain from a transferee-corporation in a Code Sec. 351 transfer to a controlled corporation to the transferor-shareholder. ... IRS said that the transferee's automatic gain recognition on sale of the transferred asset under 351 could be reallocated from the transferee-corporation to the transferor because the transfer was made for the tax avoidance purpose of offsetting the gain against the corporation's net operating loss." Source: RIA Checkpoint
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 +It just sounds like there isn't any business purpose other than utilizing the net operating loss. It shifts unrealized gain properly earned and attributable to the shareholder to a corporation which hasn't earned any income solely to shelter gain and utilize a corporate attribute.
 +
 +But hey, I'm not saying it couldn't be done, just that it sounds like it has some exposure.
 +}}

Revision as of 04:41, 17 August 2006

Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Sec. 351 Transfer in advance of sale.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

16 August 2006
C Corp operates soft ice cream stand. Balance sheet: Officer loans $90,000 Retained earnings negative $90,000. Carryforward NOL $90,000. ( Fully depreciated) building and land owned separately by sole shareholder. Can building be transferred (in exchange for stock) to and sold by corp to eat carryforward loss?

MSTguy (talk|edits) said:

17 August 2006
I think there would be a problem here with a Section 482 reallocation. Courts have held that section 482 overrides section 351, and Regs. 1.482-1(f)(1) confirm this. The IRS could easily spot this and come in and reallocate the income on sale of the building to the transferee-shareholder in order to more clearly reflect income and prevent evasion of taxes (although I don't think the IRS would argue for evasion of taxes here since burden of proof becomes theirs).

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

17 August 2006
Given the ability to liquidate the corp and use the $90K business bad debt to offset capital gain on sale, I don't see the application of Reg. 1.482-1. Guy wants to keep the Corporation.

MSTguy (talk|edits) said:

17 August 2006
This isn't exactly on point, but it just sounds similar enough to me. In Foster, the IRS "concluded that it could use Code Sec. 482 to reallocate gain from a transferee-corporation in a Code Sec. 351 transfer to a controlled corporation to the transferor-shareholder. ... IRS said that the transferee's automatic gain recognition on sale of the transferred asset under 351 could be reallocated from the transferee-corporation to the transferor because the transfer was made for the tax avoidance purpose of offsetting the gain against the corporation's net operating loss." Source: RIA Checkpoint

It just sounds like there isn't any business purpose other than utilizing the net operating loss. It shifts unrealized gain properly earned and attributable to the shareholder to a corporation which hasn't earned any income solely to shelter gain and utilize a corporate attribute.

But hey, I'm not saying it couldn't be done, just that it sounds like it has some exposure.