Discussion:Something in the Water? Acquisition Debt, Mortgage
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Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
DC couple, nice jobs, 175K income, decide the good life requires a property in the OBX and buy one for 325K. Rented out 12 weeks and they use it enough to make it mixed use. Then I look at their only 1098 for 42,500. Seems they borrowed on the equity in their house, paying off the original note of 280 and pushing the loan up to 647K. Anyone for bifurcation, or strangulation. Dumb and dumber buy a house. Funny thing they asked about it, but not about how to finance it. |
27 March 2007 | |
This is ok though isn't it? There are some issues about whether or not the same loan can be used for two purposes, but the issue, as I understand it, is not settled against you. Home acquisition debt = 325 less amount of downpayment + 280. Home equity debt = 647 - home acquisition debt, limited to 100. Am I dead wrong missing something? |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
I would like to 'bifurcate' as they say, treating the interest on 280K as Sch A debt and electing to treat the balance as used to purchase a rental property. Then I want to use the Tax Court rules to bring back to Sch A the vacation home interest allocated to their use, which seems to be about a third of the rental season there. I don't want to use any as equity loan on the residence since they are in AMT as soon as I enter state & local taxes.
I thought I read Riley's seal of approval on such an approach but after some search could not put my fingers on it. Perhaps some enterprising person will put together Riley's postings, indexed by subject matter, after the rush is over. Hey, as it is it took me 20 minutes to explain to them tonight why I want them to use it personally ['oh but every time we go it is to do work on it' as they try to tell me what they think I want to hear] |
27 March 2007 | |
How do you avoid having any home equity debt if the total of the new loan is more than existing acquisition debt on old home + cost of new home? Even if they financed 100% of the new home (unlikely) home equity debt is $42, right? |
March 27, 2007 | |
647K Deed of trust is on residence:
Whatever comes back to Sch A is equity interest. Like using the equity in your residence to purchase a 2nd home. If more than 35% of the interest on the $280K comes back to the A, then they have some non-deductible equity interest. But, since they are in AMT, it sounds like everything coming back to the A will be non-deductible on the Fed return. Refer them to H&R. They won't ask these silly questions. |
27 March 2007 | |
I agree w/ what PVV is saying (or what I think he is saying). The interest on the $367k taken out isn't acquisition indebtedness (currently) since the vacation home seemingly doesn't secure the loan. So it's home equity interest right? |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
Good points: unlike the usual vacation property where the loan is secured by it, and thus the personal use debt is for a second residence, here it is equity debt. I guess it is time to tell them to make it a motel or other Sch C business. What was so odd was opening the envelope and finding a 1098 for 42K. |
27 March 2007 | |
d&t i would agree with your post about how to deduct the interest by splitting between the sch a and sch e.
pub 936 Mortgage proceeds used for business or investment. If your home mortgage interest deduction is limited under the rules explained in Part II, but all or part of the mortgage proceeds were used for business, investment, or other deductible activities, see Table 2 near the end of this publication. It shows where to deduct the part of your excess interest that is for those activities. The Table 1 Instructions for line 13 in Part II explain how to divide the excess interest among the activities for which the mortgage proceeds were used. |
March 27, 2007 | |
Bengoshi, your post makes sense if you replace the "367k" with "280k" |
27 March 2007 | |
Thanks PVV, I always get confused when it comes to these transactions. I wish there was some software to figure all the required calculations when people refinance, etc. |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
They used the rest of the money to furnish and upgrade the place: there is a pile of photocopied receipts. The irony is that the first good hurricane will wash it away. Thanks for the reference, Hadlin. |
27 March 2007 | |
no problem, I thought the same thing as you and figured you had help me out enough that i could find some ref.
good luck |
27 March 2007 | |
If it was rental property, can't the $325k (less downpayment) be traced to Sch E? Since that portion is not being treated as qualified residence interest, isn't the requirement that the debt be secured by the property n/a? |
Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said: | 27 March 2007 |
Jessica, you raise such interesting questions. When I think about it and make the election not to treat it as Home Equity Debt, it should be Sch E Debt [I do attach the election to the return]. First I think Bengoshi is correct and now I like your answer better. Maybe Riley will show up. |
27 March 2007 | |
I would think you would want to treat 280k acquisition debt of original home (sch a) |
27 March 2007 | |
Why do you attach the election? The resources I've read say that simply deducting it on the appropriate schedule is fine, the form instructions refer to where the interest is deducted as a choice, and attaching an election tells them exactly what is going on, possibly raising the unresolved issue of treating one debt as two different types of interest. |
March 27, 2007 | |
DT, Too many numbers flying around.
The $647K is on his residence, right? What amount of this $647K is considered acquisition debt on that residence, and what amount is being considered acquisition debt on the new mixed use property? |
20 August 2010 | |
In researching various topics came across this one. A few comments/questions:
-If the re-fi on the principal residence equity money was used to purchase the rtl pty
doesn't the 163-10T election need to be made, which I've seen taken as an all or nothing kind of thing. Curiously, Pub 936 mentioned in the strand doesn't even mention 10T. Also the Pub 936 Table 1 line 13 instructions example comes up with only $15,000 in interest for Schedule C
after stating that mortgage B was allocable to business for the entire year and had $16,000 in interest. |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 20 August 2010 |
What is *non*deductible if TP *doesn't* make the election? Show me... |
20 August 2010 | |
It would be over the equity debt limit if doesn't make the election? Why, otherwise, is any
mention of 10T in so many publications and on this board if it's not applicable? |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 20 August 2010 |
Your answer is wholly circular: "So many people talk about it that it must be applicable." |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 20 August 2010 |
"Personal Interest" is nondeductible. How much "personal interest" is there here absent the (o)(5) election? Did you skip the summer school midterm exam and Extra Credit Question??? |
20 August 2010 | |
Back to summer school. As the strand started out the first answer should be obvious, there was no new debt, no new proceeds and all he did was add his house to security so it has nothing to do with interest being paid. I don't believe anywhere in the Code or Regs would change this, the interest still fully deductible on Schedule C. The first correct answer was Ckeneflick's . He didn't have to mention the election.
Then we go to Harry quoting the o5 election. The o5 election itself is obviously tarnished, or at least by the example given. In (ii) reference is made to adjusted purchase price of $40,000. Then, further on, after saying the election on debt B was made it says the applicable debt limit on debt C is $25,000. This is obviously not the case because, under current law, the applicable debt limit (not called that anymore) would be $60,000 (FMV $75,000 less $15,000). Wrong again because it's saying average balance, not the balance of acqisition debt at the time of re-fi etc..So that may mean, maybe the words in (5) still mean something, but not the example given. So, do we need 10To5 at all. Should be simple, loan/mortgage proceeds are used on what they're used on, and deductible or not based on what they're used on. Then, home mortgage interest has interest on acquisition principal plus on maximum allowable equity. |
20 August 2010 | |
Have to add for homes, principal residence and 2nd residence, that they are the security, separate on each at least for acquisition indebtedness. |
Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said: | 21 August 2010 |
DgR writes: "Hard to tell which parts of old regulations are in effect or not in effect."
Excellent observation! |