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Discussion:Reasonable compensation audit

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Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> Reasonable compensation audit


Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Reasonable compensation audit

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
Just thought I would share what is happening with a "payroll tax audit" on a client. The letter notifying the client of the audit says it is on the 2006 941s for a corporation. When the auditor got here, she hardly looked at the 941s, but instead focused on reasonable compensation. Client is an S-corp Mexican restaurant with two shareholders that started in 2000. One shareholder is never present (and I haven't even met) while the other shareholder does all the restaurant managerial duties. His wages (including tips) were $21,700 in 2006, $36,000 in 2007, and $44,000 in 2008. There were $50k of distributions in 2006 and none in 2007 or 2008. However, the S-corp started paying lease payments and improvements on another property in 2007 that will end up as another S-corp restaurant/sports bar this year (the auditor wants to call these distributions, but I believe this will be paid back from the new restaurant's profits).

The auditor states "corrected wages will be $45,000 in 2006, $60,000 in 2007 and 2008" for the manager shareholder. Of course we will be disagreeing. Restaurant managers in our city make around $44,000 according to salary.com and payscale.com. We will even go to each restaurant manager in the city to find out what they make to support our case.

The funny thing is that she wants to move the shareholder's distributions to wages. When I commented that this will make them have uneven distributions (since one shareholder doesn't work in the company) and cause problems for the S-corporation, she said that is up to me to fix.

Larry0434 (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
Sounds like a fight. How does she prove that your wages paid is unreasonable?

TAX.TITAN (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
What was the premise of their argument for their wages to be that high?

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
I don't know right now. She mentioned something about "maximum rates". I asked her if there were pay scales or something they used to determine the wages and she said there really isn't anything out there. I believe she is just adding distributions to wages to get to a higher number.

TAX.TITAN (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
I agree with you: This auditor is shooting from the hip.

Johnhuddleston (talk|edits) said:

8 May 2009
Have her show you any court case where a $44,000 salary (or even a $21,700 salary) was determined to be unreasonably low. I don't think there is one.

Tpasco (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
I use the US Dept of Labor bureau of labor statistics when I'm trying to figure out reasonable compensation. link: http://www.bls.gov/bls/blswage.htm

I got the tip from a friend who does immigration - I think she uses it to justify H1-B compensation.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
No offense, but all Americans should educate themselves about this H1-B Visa program. It's my opinion that we'd better off if it was repealed.

http://www.businessweek.com/bwdaily/dnflash/content/oct2008/db2008108_844949.htm?campaign_id=rss_daily

Sorry for the diversion.

Southparkcpa (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
In all honesty $21,000 seems pretty low.

Had the Wage base been say 36K, this most likely would not have occured. I went through this last year, and the auditor produced comp wages suing SIC codes and the like and bumped us from 30K to 60K which I negotiated down to 45K or so.

My personal view, for spirit of the law and safety, is that distributions should never exceed W2 income until W2 income nears 6 figures.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
Steve Jobs salary was $1.00 as well as Warren Buffett's, what up with that? Are these salaries to low?

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
It is reasonable compensation not comparable compensation.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
I would think that it would be helpful - but maybe not dispositive - that the two shareholders have "economic tension" between them. That is to say that when the working shareholder and the uncompensated shareholder agree on a level of compensation for the one who's working, that negotiation is at least arguably at arm's length.

I am not saying there's nothing else on the table except the manager's services, and his compensation, but that those two items are subject to negotiation between the two shareholders.

I don't know how to bring this to bear on the question of reasonableness, however. A clever/experienced/gifted debater should be able to make something of it. Show the IRS agent that every dollar that the worker gets is 50 cents that the non-worker doesn't get. That's arm's length. And she's got less leverage to mess with something that's at arm's length.

And I think the issue of the payments toward the new store will be a big issue, too. Were they deducted when paid? Is the new store already in a separate S corp?

Not to mention the threat to the corporation's S election...


Please spell Mr. Buffett's name correctly, Roy. Thank you.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

9 May 2009
Harry, I am just a hick off the farm, spelling, as most things was never among my abilities.

Southparkcpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
RD

The significant difference is that Jobs and Buffet do NOT tax distributions so there is NOTHING to reclass. They take dividends from a C corp in PROPER proportion to their ownership.

if you take NO distributions in an S Corp they CAN'T make you declare salary.

This is a dist vs salary debate not a reasonable comp debate alone.

Harry Boscoe (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
Do you maybe mean to say that Jobs and Buffett don't *take* distributions? What you've written doesn't make sense.

And please spell Mr. Buffett's name correctly, Southparkcpa. Thank you.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
Maybe the manager's annual salary s/b voted upon by the shareholders at an annual meeting as proof that the wage is what was agreed upon.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
If the letter says they are looking at 2006 p/r, why are you giving them more current info?

Southparkcpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
Yes, my typing error (small laptop), TAKE and Buffett

Apology to all...............

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
"why are you giving them more current info?"

Sometimes the auditor says "Jump" and all you can do is reply, "How high?"

Lhhesscpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
Some clarification of earlier postings:
  1. S corp taxable income is taxable to shareholders regardless of whether or not there are distributions.
  2. Unreasonably low compensation of S corp. shareholder/employees is an issue whether or not there are distributions.
  3. Unreasonably high compensation of shareholder/employees is the issue with C corps, although not so much since the advent of preferential taxation of qualified dividends. -- Larry Hess, CPA | Albuquerque, NM

Southparkcpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
LHss....

What cite are you relying on for the thought that NO ditributions in an S can still be subject to salary.

I represented a company many years ago that had in excess of 100K of flow through income , paid NO wages to the shareholder for several reasons and the auditor made mention of low comp but chose to ignore it because he could not cite anything.

I see your point but just curious.

Lhhesscpa (talk|edits) said:

10 May 2009
My assertion is not intended to give the impression that there are no exceptions. There certainly can be circumstances under which a profitable S corp is justified in paying no comp. (for example, capital needs for expansion). Yet, it should be noted that inadequate S corp comp is currently a high-profile IRS audit issue. I don't think what happened many years ago concerning this issue is relevant. -- Larry Hess, CPA | Albuquerque, NM

TexCPA (talk|edits) said:

11 May 2009
good reading, history

The Internal Revenue Service Does Not Always Address Subchapter S Corporation Officer Compensation During Examinations

Agree that compensation should be in the minutes, but it seems this is a case by case matter,

TexCPA 23:37, 10 May 2009 (CDT)

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

11 May 2009
Harry, good point on the salary approval issue. The working shareholder told us that he had to ask the investing shareholder for an increase in pay. Not that there is tension between them-the investing shareholder is the working shareholder's wife's uncle-but I think we can raise the issue. Unfortunately there are no annual meeting minutes (closely held Mexican restaurant, remember). I agree that the 2006 wages were probably too little, but his wife also worked in the restaurant at the same salary. The distributions were also in one $25,000 check to each shareholder.

I have read elsewhere that the IRS may state they are looking at one issue, but the issues are found by expanding to other years and returns. At least I got it away from being a tip audit.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

11 May 2009
I think there are corporate minutes, they just have not been put down to writing. What you have in this case is the well known "minutos corporativos orales". In fact, I ran a corporation in Mexico back in the '60s named just that: Minutos Corporativos Orales, S.A. We did everything by an oral agreement.

Of course, you cannot "doctor" the minutes to suit your present purposes. However, the lawyer can put together the last few years based upon the honest memory of the two compadres, and get them on the right track for the future.

Lhhesscpa (talk|edits) said:

11 May 2009
Minutes are not proof of reasonable comp. -- Larry Hess, CPA | Albuquerque, NM

Smokeytax (talk|edits) said:

11 May 2009
Wow, what a mess. And this is the easy issue, compared to LLC SE taxes!

TexCPA (talk|edits) said:

12 May 2009
S-Corp reasonable salary is subjective and is determined and supported by many factors:
  1. qualification, duties and time spent
  2. ability of company to pay salary
  3. comparison of salaries in similar (salary.com)
  4. frequency of pro-rata 'distributions' vs. salary
  5. salary policy in corp minutes
  6. comparison of salary and distributions

anyone want to add or delete?

TexCPA 20:47, 11 May 2009 (CDT)

TAX.TITAN (talk|edits) said:

12 May 2009
I do not know of a tax court case where the court held that a salary of 21K was determined to be unreasonable.

Using common law would be the strongest argument for you to make against the IRS's position.

TexCPA (talk|edits) said:

12 May 2009
Another good reading

T.C. Memo. 2006-36

See Issue #8 (page 138)

TexCPA 23:42, 11 May 2009 (CDT)

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

12 May 2009
I guess we should be thankful MR. Rose did not post a consumer question on TA back then.....my eyes wearied as I skimmed to find the relevant section.

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

12 May 2009
The reference should say "go to the very end of the case and then page up to Issue #8". Good information.

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

22 June 2009
An update - I got the auditor off of 2007 & 2008 by getting the other restaurant to do a promissory note for the money spent to open the new restaurant. Now, the only issue left is her wanting to increase his wages for 2006. The auditor says (in a wishy-washy fashion IMO) "Well, I'll just increase his salary by $25K for 2006 to make it $46,700. That should be reasonable."

I have some other deductions (that were actually coded to distributions!) to include in the 2006 & 2007 returns which I need to work through to see what the net cash affect will be before I argue with her.

The problem this would then raise is that the corporation would now owe the working shareholder his $25K distribution (or the other shareholder would owe him $12,500!

Waynecpa (talk|edits) said:

10 July 2009
The audit report language states that she will be discounting the $25,000 adjustment to wages by a 15% return on investment (resulting in increasing wages by $21,250). She states "the wage adjustment can also be considered to bring his wages up for when he was underpaid in past periods of time. Research online of comparable wages showed ranges for food workers to food service manager from $37,500 to $77,397. IRS is limited in what can be adjusted as wages because of distributions being made."

Questions - 1. Since other years are closed, can they really look back at historical wages to justify the wage increase? 2. The adjustment is $3,251 for FICA/Medicare and $1,980 increase in tax on the shareholders personal return (other shareholder will receive a $2,860 refund if he is at the 25% rate - I haven't seen his personal return). In your opinion, is this worth arguing over? 3. With a range of $40,000, it seems we could negotiate the increase. For example, we could do a survey of other restaurants in town to come up with a better number. However, since the officer is claiming tips to get to his $21,714 in income, the officer compensation expense to the corporation was actually $14,514. I don't really want her to think about this further.

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