Discussion:LLC Taxation Issue

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Discussion Forum Index --> Advanced Tax Questions --> LLC Taxation Issue


Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> LLC Taxation Issue

Davewright1010 (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
If you have LLC members taking a W-2 income are they reporting any active income on the K-1 (can you take it both ways) or is it all passive income? If passive, is there an IRS safe harbor in terms of passive income percentage v/ W2 income?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 4, 2009
Well, back up the truck. You do NOT take W2 income for the members out of an LLC. Ooops. Sorry to wreck your day.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
I have never seen where an "employee" of a partnership should not get a W2.

True, partners who receive "payment" in their capacity as partners can not get a W2 for amounts paid to them as partners.

However, I am still looking for the prohibition of a partner becoming an employee of a partnership, and in the capacity of an employee receiving a W2. In the capacity as a partner, a partner is not allowed to take payments, (in a partner capacity), in the form of wages (W2).

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 4, 2009
? If this was someone else writing that, I'd be aghast. But it's you...which makes me nervous. Common knowledge/Cir. E...partners and members do NOT receive W2's, ever. ? Stop scaring me. Guaranteed payments they are.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
A partner can get a W-2, but not in his capacity as partner, so to speak.

I've given the example of the dentist/partner doing the books, for example, and getting a W-2 for that.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
See Pub 541 Page 6 the part about transactions between a partner and a partnership, and the partner being treated as a non-partner.

If the partner is an employee under the employee rules, the partner is an employee.

Yes, those transaction between a partnership and a partner in the capacity as a partner are not W2 wages.

I have heard the same as you, JR1, I just want to to see it in writing, because, I have been told such writing exists, and I can not find it. I just looked in Pub 15 and 15A and I believe that deals with transactions as a partner with a partnership.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 4, 2009
So we've wronged all those folks who've asked about payroll for their llc owners? Something isn't right here......so you're thinking that an llc member has two options: payroll OR guaranteed pay?

Now, my mind begins to spin...let's take Dave's idea above and run it out. We establish the membership as a passive membership, and pay a salary on W2 to establish a reasonable salary...I wonder what the service would do with profits flowing thru and not subject to SE.....seems like an easy and automatic way to bifurcate the interests....

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
An LLC member only has the two options, when, there can be a employer employee relationship established between the member and the LLC.

The employment relationship is not automatically created by causing wages an a W2, it would have to be a real employment relationship.

KatieJ (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
It also creates a state tax planning opportunity for partnerships (LLCs included) with partners working in different states. Most states require a guaranteed payment for services or the use of capital to be apportioned by the same percentage as the distributive share of income. So an active partner working in Florida or Texas has to pay tax to all of the other states where the partnership does business if he receives a guaranteed payment. Salaries and wages, on the other hand, are generally sourced at the place where the services are performed. So if the FL or TX resident partner received a salary rather than a GP, the salary would be sourced to the office location, not apportioned among all the states. See my recent discussion with Ekcpa under the heading "1065 apportionment between ca, nj." (Sorry I don't know how to make that a link to the discussion.)

I'm still a bit skeptical, though. If this really worked, why wouldn't the national accounting and law firms pay their partners most of their shares of income in the form of salaries? They'd probably have to amend their partnership agreements to do it, of course, but it could save the partners who reside in no-tax or low tax states a lot of state taxes.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
KatieJ, you are very good at research, point the way.

Please, note I have caveats over the place.

Guarantee payments are, specifically, exempted from the wages category, and can not be W2 wages.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
For KatieJ:

Section 1.707-1(a) of the Income Tax Regulations provides that a partner who engages in a transaction with a partnership other than in the capacity of a partner shall be treated as if the partner were not a member of the partnership with respect to such transaction. The regulation's section further states that such transactions include the rendering of services by the partner to the partnership and that the substance of the transaction will govern rather than its form.

Section 707(c) of the Code provides that to the extent determined without regard to the income of the partnership, payments to a partner for services, termed 'guaranteed payments', shall be considered as made to one who is not a member of the partnership, but only for purposes of section 61(a) and, subject to section 263, for purposes of section 162(a). If the payments were not termed guaranteed payments, nor were they made in the capacity of a partner, then, maybe they were wages for services and should be treated as such for withholding and social security taxes.

I believe for there to be guaranteed payments there needs to be a provision covering the payments in the partnership agreement.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 4, 2009
Tho' Pubs are not authoritative, I wonder what 541 says...gotta do more returns now.

Taxalmancer (talk|edits) said:

4 February 2009
Personally, I've never thought a partner could take a W-2, and would probably have bet the bank on it, but what the heck do I know!

Why then couldn't the same philosophy be principle be applied to a sole-proprietor whereby he, or she, gets a W-2 for the services rendered in a capacity other than as owner?

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Katie - here you go  :-}

Discussion:1065_apportionment_between_ca,_nj

Futenma (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Rev. Rul 81-300 and 81-301 have a good analysis of this issue.

CrowJD (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
No, the W-2 wage can't be for the very service that the partnership provides. In other words, the dentist can get a W-2 for doing the books of the partnership, but not for performing the dental services that the partnership provides.

One of our old partners here at the firm is our firm mascot "The Colonel", and we send him around to charity events (really any event we can find that's hard up for entertainment), and he drums business for the firm, and brings about goodwill. We give him a W-2 for this. He plays the banjo if you're wondering.

Please don't say that this is wrong, I depend on that W-2. Err, I mean he depends on it.

Taxtips (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Partners are either paid as partners or as independent contractors. See Rev. Rul. 69-184.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Very good, so partners can receive renumeration from a partnership as independent contractors in place of wages for services rendered to the partnership. Such amounts so paid would be deductible as an expense to the partnership (unless, some other rule applied), and would not be treated as guaranteed payments, or as an allocation of the partnership profit or loss.

Well, partners still should not be on the payroll as employees, however, they can be paid as independent contractors.

I still have not seen a well reasoned legal reason why partners can not be employees. The revenue rulings cited above just make a statements about the issue, and, I am happy that the rulings recognize the position that a partner can render services to a partnership as an independent contractor.

This will solve a couple of problems I had, and will present some tax savings opportunities.

Thank you very much.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 5, 2009
My only thought remaining on the topic is that a partner cannot be an employee of himself. A partnership is not a legal entity. Now where does that leave us with the LLC? Well, since IRS refuses to acknowledge that they exist and therefore treats them AS a partnership, you cannot pay payroll to yourself. There must be a separate relationship. For what it's worth.

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
JR1 I agree in the big part of what you say, however, how can a partner be an independent contractor of himself? I now see how a partner and a partnership is treated for payroll purposes is friction. The government does not want to deal with all of the problems that treating a partner as an employee of a partnership can cause.

Taxalmancer (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
What's the status of the Armstrong v. Phinney case where the Tax Court reversed the lowered court and ruled that a partner/partnership could be also have an employee/employer relationship?

http://bulk.resource.org/courts.gov/c/F2/394/394.F2d.661.24751.html

It is a 1968 case so it predates Rev. Rul. 69-184.

NMexEA (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
I also was under the impression that, for W-2 purposes, a partner cannot be an employee of the partnership. I had THOUGHT, anyway, that this was why so many LLCs file Subchaper S elections, there being no doubt that a shareholder CAN be an employee of a corporation?

LLCs aren't really all that different from partnerships under uniform state partnership law, at least, not anymore. A partnership is treated as a separate legal entity for many purposes which was not the case at common law. The big diffeence, of course, is the limited liability LLC members enjoy.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

February 5, 2009
Hmmm. I've never been aware of a partnership being treated as a legal entity under state law. I'll defer to the attorney on board.

NMexEA (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Not for all purposes, not by any means, but for some. A partnership can hold property in the partnership's name, for instance:

N.M.S.A. 1978, 54-1A-501. Partner not co-owner of partnership property.

A partner is not a co-owner of partnership property and has no interest in partnership property which can be transferred, either voluntarily or involuntarily.

A partnership can also sue and be sued in its own name.

LH2004 (talk|edits) said:

February 5, 2009
At common law, a partnership was not an entity. Under early partnership statutes, it was for some purposes and not others. Under modern statutes, in general it is an entity for all purposes. See the Prefatory Note to the Uniform Partnership Act at http://www.law.upenn.edu/bll/archives/ulc/upa/upa1200.htm . This makes no practical difference.

I think it's very strange to ever treat a partner as an employee or independent contractor for tax purposes. It's perfectly meaningful for a partner to supply capital in a capacity other than as a partner: there is a clear distinction between being a partner, that is, owning an equity interest in a partnership, and lending to it or doing some other financial transaction. But I have no clue what it means to perform services in or out of a capacity of being a partner. Being a partner for tax purposes means co-owning a business; there's just no difference at all between performing services as an owner and performing them not as an owner, since ownership just has nothing to do with work.

NMexEA (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
As of 1997, a partnership here in New Mexico IS an entity separate from its partners:

54-1A-201. Partnership as entity. (1997) Statute text (a) A partnership is an entity distinct from its partners. (b) A limited liability partnership continues to be the same entity that existed before the filing of a statement of qualification under Section 54-1A-1001 NMSA 1978. History

 History: Laws 1996, ch. 53, § 201; 1997, ch. 76, § 4.  

And I guess that means for ALL purposes, as you say.

NMexEA (talk|edits) said:

5 February 2009
Come to think of it...wasn't it the rapid development in partnership law that finally led the Treasury to adopt the "check-the-box" rule?

KatieJ (talk|edits) said:

13 February 2009
That was part of it (RULPA, Re-RULPA, etc., etc.) but I think the main impetus was the proliferation of LLCs under multiple slightly differing state laws. The IRS was inundated with ruling requests asking whether an LLC organized under this state's laws with these characteristics would be taxed as a partnership or a corporation under the old 7701 regs. They finally threw in the towel and said, just decide what you want to be.

Okie1tax (talk|edits) said:

25 March 2009
This discussion is about my issue. A new partnership has been paying "wages" to its partners and has done and paid the withholding taxes. How is best to handle this? Report as wages on the 1065 for this year and do distributions going forward? Report as distributions and see if payroll can get back trust funds?

RoyDaleOne (talk|edits) said:

25 March 2009
From

Jerry DILTS, Barbara Dilts, Plaintiffs, v. UNITED STATES of America, Defendant. United States District Court, D. Wyoming. 845 F.Supp. 1505 No. 93-CV-1001-B. March 11, 1994.

"In Armstrong , the taxpayer was a partner in a partnership which owned a 50,000 acre cattle ranch. The partnership provided a home at the ranch for the taxpayer and his family and purchased most of their groceries and utilities, insurance for the house, and maid service. The taxpayer did not include the value of those benefits in his income. In remanding the case for further consideration, the Fifth Circuit Court of Appeals held that, under IRC § 707(a), a partner could be an employer of his partnership. Section 707(a) provides that a partner who “engages in a transaction with the partnership other than in his capacity as a member of such partnership, . . . except as otherwise provided in this section, [shall] be considered as . . . one who is not a partner.” The court stated that: The terms “outsider” and “one who is not a partner” are not defined by Congress; neither is the relationship between § 707 and other sections of the Code explained. However, we have found nothing to indicate that Congress intended that this section not relate to § 119. Consequently, it is now possible for a partner to stand in any on of a number of relationships with his partnership, including those of creditor–debtor, vendor–vendee, and employee–employer".

Okie1tax (talk|edits) said:

25 March 2009
RD1, thank you. I think then that for 2008, it would be easiest then to show as wages and have them do distributions going forward.

Smktax (talk|edits) said:

7 April 2009
Armstrong v. Phinney provided that a partner can be treated as an employee of the partnership for certain purposes of the Code (specifically § 119). If you want a partnership to pay wages to a partner, then the wages must be remuneration from employment. Code § 3121(a). Employment means "any service . . . performed . . . by an employee . . . " Code § 3121(b). An "employee" for purposes of determining wages means "any officer of a corporation" or "any individual who, under the usual common law rules applicable in determining the employer-employee relationship, has the status of an employee." Code § 3121(d).

The partner is not an officer of a corporation since no corporation exists. I doubt that a partner could be considered an employee of the partnership under common law.

Draque (talk|edits) said:

7 October 2010
This is just a theory, but I have a hunch that the issue might be the FICA taxes if a W-2 were to be paid out to partners. Perhaps there's a concern with whether or not the partners are paying for their fairshare of FICA? As an example, if there's a 50-50 partnership, and one partner takes a larger wage than the other and deducts the employer's share of fica (and this expense is split 50-50)- someone is getting away/gaining extra deduction with some fica. If each partner got a k-1 for their share of the profit and GP- then the FICA will be calculated and paid for by each individual on their personal return on schedule SE.

With W-2s issued, the partnership is deducting fica that it normally would not be if the profits were reported on the k-1s.

Any thoughts?

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

7 October 2010
yes, I think you have missed the point of the entire thread, and also haven't considered the difference between a partner deducting half of the SE tax as an adjustment on his 1040 with what you are proposing. Those are my thoughts.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

7 October 2010
One further thought: could you please fill out your profile, as asked kindly to do, before making a post? We consider those who don't follow instructions to be rude. Thank you kindly in advance. Since you just received a user name today, you certainly were warned.

Draque (talk|edits) said:

7 October 2010
sorry, for that. never added anything to this forum before- although I love the content here.

Kevinh5 (talk|edits) said:

7 October 2010
thank you for filling out your profile. Consider the tax effect of deducting half the SE tax as an adjustment on the 1040 compared with deducting half of the FICA tax (for each partner) on the 1065.

Draque (talk|edits) said:

8 October 2010
that's what i wanted to point out- instead of having half of SE taxes on the 1040s of the partners- you're now having half of the fica as a business expense on the partnership level. consider one passive partner and on participating partner where each partner gets a share of 100k profit each (just an example). if done without w-2s and just k-1s, the active partner would be have 100K subject to SE with the SE adjustment on his 1040, the passive partner would have his 100K SE tax free. however, if the partnership paid the active partner 100K, the passive partner now does not have 100K of passive income to flow into his return due to the employer's share of fica. the active partner will also have a small loss for the fica expense flowing thru his k-1... any opinions on that?

RJHCPA (talk|edits) said:

8 October 2010
Not to be disagreeable, because the rules are the rules, but has anyone in practice had a problem with this under audit?

I have a mid sized LLC who despite my repeated, oral & written warnings continue to show a W2 wage (in addition to G/P) for its members.

We've been through two IRS audits (separate auditors both times) who didn't even touch the issue.

In this case it could be that the S/E income itself pushed them far over the FICA max. So in essence the Gov't made out on it...

Nevertheless, the topic did not even come up..

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