Discussion:Cash basis adjustments

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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Cash basis adjustments


Rosalydia (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007

The sole proprietor is on the cash basis. Can he deduct in 2006 the FUTA he paid in 2007 for 2006 wages?

Thank you for your answer.

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
No, unfortunately not. The theory behind cash basis is that one only needs to report the income they actually receive and on the other side of the equation they can only deduct those expenses they actually pay for either via a direct disbursement or a loan. Outstanding liabilities for which this is one of them will be deductible once paid.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
Sorry, my sailor friend, I disagree with you. Rosaly...these are accrued taxes at year end and can be deducted, just as SS taxes not paid until 1/16, or credit card charges, which are considered paid in cash.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
And pensions, the ultimate tax saver.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
The 2006 FUTA paid in 2007 can be deducted. The employer becomes liable for the tax as of the date of the payroll. It is a current liability. It is not considered an accrual.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
JR is correct. Yes, he can deduct the FUTA tax for 2006 in 2006 and paid in 2007. Payroll taxes payable can be deducted in the year they apply to, even though they are paid in the following year. This is one of the exceptions to the accrual and cash basis rules. Deduct FUTA, SUTA, and employer's share of FICA in the year they apply to, not the next year when they are paid.

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
I am happy to change my post on this but not until someone provides a site or additional information (actual authority) as to why this is an exception and deductible. I have spent a little time trying to prove you correct but can not - now it is your turn!

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
This is something I found in the IRS instructions back in around 1980, when I started doing monthly accounting, so I've been doing it that way ever since. But I'll try to find something in print when I get some time.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
How much you gonna pay me to do your research to prove yourself wrong? :)

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
I'd rather owe you one than cheat you out of it.........  :-} But I also know I'm not to old to change and/or go to school along the way with the help from an ole salty dog such as yourself - fair winds.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
To get you started, Michaelstar, this method of deducting accrued payroll expenses in the year for which they apply is called the "combination method" or "hybrid method." Check out Publication 334, pages 14-15, and also, Publication 538, pages 13-14. I'm still looking for where I found the specific mention of FICA, FUTA, and SUTA and will let you know when and if I find it. I might have to check my old Accounting Principles book from 1970.

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

12 January 2007
I am aware of both the combination and/or hybrid methods of accounting but my post and the question was on the cash basis method of accounting. I have gone to and read the sites pub 334 and pub 538 and will look back again for additional posts/sites. I also came across this info more or less when using Klienrock trying to research this answer but they did not site these pubs.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 12, 2007
Yes, the post and the question were about the cash basis method, but the hybrid (combination) method applies to the subject of cash basis (and accrual basis) and applies in this case.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
I don't know. I kind of think the other box is there for a reason and if you don't check it and write in hybrid you are on the cash basis. I'm with Michael on this one. You get a technical accrual for trust fund FICA but that's about it.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Ok, forget what I said about the combination/hybrid method, because that is obviously confusing. I wasn't referring to checking the third box on the tax form but was referring to using the cash basis that allows certain current liabilities to be deducted in the year they were accrued. If a company chooses to deduct employment taxes in this way, they have to be consistent from year to year.

This is mainly an accounting question. The correct way to report payroll taxes is to record the following entries on the date the wages are paid. I also just dug out my old Accounting Principles textbook (12th Edition) and found that the authors, Niswonger and Fess, agree with me. Actually, they taught me this back in 1970.

(1) debit FICA Expense, FUTA Expense, and SUTA Expense (2) credit FICA Payable, FUTA Payable, and SUTA Payable

I'll try to find more on the web, possibly after the Pistons game.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Count me with Michael & Dennis on this. A cash basis taxpayer cannot deduct the ER payroll taxes paid the following year. The balance sheet should only include an accrual for the EE withholding that arose from the payroll paid prior to the YE date. The reason for this, as Dennis mentioned, is that at the point the net wages have been paid to the EE, the EEFICA and FWT are no longer accruals, but are funds held in trust.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Are you guys answering the same question that we are? (JR, D&T, Blrg, and I) This is an easy one, so I don't know why there are so many disagreements with this simple journal entry that accountants make for cash basis companies every month or every week (if they have chosen the modified cash basis treatment of employment taxes).

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Sorry to disagree with old Niswonger and Fess, but they are not exactly authoritative. I am not arguing that what you're saying is never done, my argument is that on a true cash basis, the employer payroll taxes are deducted when they are actually paid, not when the employee payroll is paid. Which is different from the EE withholdings, as stated above. But as in many areas of taxation, it is better to be consistent, even if consistently wrong, then inconsistendly right. So if you are going to accrue the ER taxes on a cash basis, do it the same way every year.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
The IRS allows this choice, so the choice to report as I've been saying is not wrong. I'll find something in print eventually. By the way, I've been referring to the modified cash basis, not the true cash basis.

Uncle Sam (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
I'm with JR1 and Deback. Many years ago I learned at a tax seminar that accruing payroll tax liabilities for a cash basis client was an acceptable method - and I've used it for over 30 years that way - never had a problem.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Michael and JD - As I find applicable links, I'll post them here. Here's one, and even though it's not authoritative, but it might begin to give you an idea of how most accountants record payroll tax liabilities: (Where did JR and D&T go?)


Quickbooks Community

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Intuit's Online Resource for Accounting Professionals and Quickbooks Advisors

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Another confused bookkeeper in this forum:


Intuit's Online Resource for Accounting Professionals and Quickbooks Advisors

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
From the IRS:

Besides the FICA Tax and Federal Income Tax deducted from the employees’ earnings discussed above, the employer must also pay FICA Tax equal to the amount paid by the employee, Federal Unemployment Insurance Tax (FUTA), and State Unemployment Insurance Tax (SUTA). These three taxes on salaries paid by the employer are considered operating expenses. The journal entry results in a debit to Payroll Tax Expense and credits to FICA Tax Payable, FUTA Payable, and SUTA Payable.

Will (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
It seems odd to me that no one questions the deductibility of CC purchases that have not been paid by a cash basis TP but will throw the gauntlet down on FUTA. The situations are similar with an unequivocal liability assumed with no cash being disbursed. Is there a specific reg that dictates this expensing treatment for cash basis TP?


William Price, EA | Portland, OR - Talk to me

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
The question in this discussion was about FUTA, not credit card purchases, but I know there have been other discussions about these "modified cash basis" payables that can be deducted as expenses. But, yes, CC purchases (and SEPs) are similar to the employer's share of FICA, FUTA, and SUTA. I also deduct SBT expense (Michigan Single Business Tax payable on 12/31) in the year for which it was incurred. If I find a reg, I'll be sure to post it.  :)

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
TaxMama gives her mother's touch opinion:

Ask TaxMama dot com

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
So funny that I never considered not deducting it; to me deducting FUTA, FICA etc is like getting out of the rain. Lord almighty, what would Finney & Miller have said back in 1963 or so? The credit card is the same as an auto loan, a debt that can become a automatic judgment. I recall losing on an audit when the liability for some dental equipment was financed directly by the seller on terms of net/30....that was a payable. The principle is different with the taxes, but I stick with Deb, Jr, Will ans Sam. Fight on, Deb!

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Agreed, D&T. This is such a simple question, and I can't believe I'm spending my time on a Friday night trying to prove to two CPAs (and even Dennis) that what I'm saying is true. LOL


>>>>>>> See Publication 535, page 23, Employment Taxes, be sure to read the example, third paragraph down from the "Employment Taxes" title. This is so simple that the IRS didn't think it was necessary to state that this applies in December, when the payroll taxes will be paid in January.


I'm done for now with this subject. I've been doing it this way for 26 years. I suspect that most accountants do it this way. I'm not sure how some CPAs' clerks handle it, though.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Tax Mama (MBA EA?) is clearly wrong on sales taxes, which are neither income nor expense. There is no deduction for interest unpaid on an auto loan (don't you guys keep schedules on chattels?). The FUTA amount is dependent on paying the state tax timely (or are you grabbing that too?) I personally make a distinction between charges on a personal rather than a business credit card. A cash basis taxpayer has choices at the end of the year. FICA and FUTA can be paid by coupon deposit or EFT.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Did you notice where I posted up above (where my message starts with "From the IRS") that the IRS considers the three taxes (FICA, FUTA, and SUTA) as operating expenses? The paragraph goes on to describe the journal entries for these expenses. There is your authoritative proof.


Regarding FUTA, when the SUTA tax is paid late, the IRS will bill the taxpayer for the additional FUTA owed. I would then expense the additional FUTA in the year it was paid. But this was not the question in this discussion, and neither are the following: whether or not Tax Mama is right or wrong on sales taxes, whether unpaid interest can be deducted on an auto loan, distinctions between personal and business credit cards, and how FICA and FUTA can be paid. None of these topics have anything to do with the original question.

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
When accounting on the cash basis method of accounting, most accountants do not accrue employer p/r taxes in their accounting entry when booking the entry to report p/r. It surprises me that this is even being disputed. It is only recognized as an expense when paid and therefore not deductible until paid. It is not a current liability on a cash basis balance sheet.


See Reg. 1.461-1(a)(1) which talks about the cash basis of accounting and when an expense can be deducted. We are not talking about the combined (hybrid) method which combines both the cash and accrual method. If you were than I would agree with you but the original question concerned cash basis. I have not yet read anything above that has been authoritative to the contrary.


In the end we may very well agree to disagree but to issue f/s on the cash basis method and deduct er p/r taxes before they are paid is incorrect. This would be a M-1 adjustment as I see it if you were to take this unpaid expense on your tax return. A sole properitor does not have an M-1 on their Schedule C but that does not change the theory. There is also the issue of materiality where the IRS is concerned and also consistency in how items are reported but for now, I am not changing my position. I look forward to additional discussion on this topic.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Note to Deb: Your "From the IRS" link is to a full accrual analysis. All it says in Publication 535 is that payroll taxes are operating expenses. It does not say you can deduct them on a cash basis if not paid.

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Michael raises the issue of materiality. Rosalydia did not spell out dollars in her question, but presumably if her Sch C employer was subject to depositing the 940 liability quarterly, we'd be talking about a very small amount unless it was a seasonal employer whose hiring came for the Holidays. I do no financial statements besides the dreaded mortgage letters, so I talk out of an Enrolled Agent's ignorance on the subject, but I recall that when I worked for a PA, the date of the opinion letter was important. If the tax liability had not been paid as of the date of the letter, which might be March 10th, would it not be disclosed in a footnote? This has nothing to do with taxes, of course, but I sense the discussion divides between full service CPA and PA firms, and those more or less year-end specialists.


Death & Taxes Inc has a 940 tax due of $127: 2 employees at $56 and one at $15. It will appear on the Other Current Liabilites line 18. Last year it was $129.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Michael - I found nothing concerning FICA, FUTA, SUTA, payroll taxes, or employment taxes in your linked regulation.

Dennis - You might be correct, but I didn't notice anything on that page that said it is discussing Examination of Returns for only "full accrual basis" taxpayers.

My point is that the IRS allows cash basis taxpayers to deduct payroll taxes in the year accrued, instead of deducting them in the year paid, as long as the taxpayer is consistent in the method he chooses when the payroll is started. The IRS also allows deductions for cash basis taxpayers for SEP contributions and credit card purchases when accrued and not when actually paid.

JD, Michael, and Dennis - So, can I assume that you record SEP contributions in 2007, when paid in 2007 by cash basis employers for 2006?

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
I'm baaaaack.....! OK, so my sailing friend...you're going to book the wages at the net amount? Is that what you're suggesting? Puhleeze. I don't think so, so then you're financial reporting, Sch. C/1120S/you pick it won't match your payroll records? No. So when you book that payroll at GROSS, like you should, what you gonna do with those withheld taxes, huh? Credit....what? Income? I doubt it. You make the proper entries whether cash or accrual. I accrue all taxes, including sales tax, credit cards, and retirement (wait, do I accrue retirement? Have to think about that...maybe I don't, I'll have to look, and that's one that maybe shouldn't be, unless it's a SIMPLE/401k which is directly PR related.).

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Deb: In Discussion: S corporation pension accrual basis Dennis makes the excellent point that the pension deduction is not an accrual but a specific provision of tax law. I do agree that consistency of treatment makes either FUTA way a winner on audit. In doing small Schedule Cs, three or four times I have found at later dates that clients have put themselves on accrual for sales and cash for disbursements, or vice-versa, and not reflected items charged on credit cards in the proper year.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
JR - If I read your question correctly, I don't think Michael, Dennis, and JD are saying they don't record the federal and state withholding taxes as payables. I think they're just saying they report incorrectly the employer's liability--FICA, FUTA, and SUTA. I just think it makes sense, for cash basis taxpayers, to deduct the employers' share of the payroll taxes in the same year as they relate to the wages paid. I also believe the IRS prefers it this way. I had an audit of a cash-basis C Corp in my office, back in the 90s, and I know that the auditor did not adjust the employment taxes that I deducted in the year they were accrued. Something in my memory tells me that he told me it was acceptable to deduct them in the year accrued.

This same corporation contributes to the two owners' SEP plans. I make entries to deduct those SEP contibutions in the prior year, even when the contributions will be paid between January and March 15th.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
With all the other stuff to do, I can't imagine waiting until tax deposits are actually made to then revisit the old payroll, determine what was withheld and what part is matching, and then separate the payment at that time. Oh, please don't Intuit think that that's the right way in QB! Heaven forbid.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Thank, D&T. I agree that SEPs are unrelated to the discussion of when to deduct payroll taxes for cash-basis taxpayers. What's frustrating is I haven't been able to find anything specific (either way) about this on the IRS site. I know that I read in some IRS publication many years ago that a cash-basis company can choose either year to deduct payroll taxes. I told myself when I woke up today that I wasn't going to spend one more minute on this subject. And, here I am...  :) Ok - I have categories to add now, so--bye.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
Exactly, JR! It seems to me that it would be more time-consuming to not report December payroll tax payables in December. I record payroll tax payables every month, but I have to assume that the CPAs don't record any payroll tax payables monthly and just record the actual payments each month directly to the expense accounts (for cash-basis, that is).

Death&Taxes (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
I keep hearing this voice in my head muttering something about 'angels dancing on the head of a pin.' Conversion of one side or other is not going to occur, just like our discussion about expenses on 1099s, and in that case there was actual IRS writings on point. Michael's financial statements will show the withheld taxes due as a liability as of year end, but not the company liability. As I noted above, if these were not paid as of date of the opinion letter, I would think he would put this in the Notes to Financials. His tax returns would agree with the statements. What is the difference? Timing: in the final year his client receives the deduction while ours does not.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
I've got better things to do.

Next....!

Michaelstar (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
JR1 - Lets put the wind back in your sails - nobody likes being in irons.... Basic accounting on recording p/r. Gross p/r - debit expense, ee-w/h - credit liability (these are trust fund taxes) , net p/r - cr cash. When paying the p/r taxes - dr - ee w/h, dr - er p/r tax expense, cr- cash. For as long as I have been posting you know me enough that at least the first half of this entry should have been a given.

I will limit my discussion to the employer p/r taxes as in my mind that was what the original discussion was all about.

Deback, you are correct - reg 1.461-1(a)(1) does not specifically discuss employer p/r taxes. What it discusses it the timing of when deductions are allowed for a cash basis t/p.

Also, your site of pub 535 (page 23) it talks about the deduction of unemployment fund taxes and that the t/p can deduct these payments. This part is not in question - it is an operating expense and certainly a deductible expense - what is in question is the timing of that deduction which we do appear to have a difference of opinion.

From a theoritical stand point, to match income with expenses within the same period makes perfect sence. Unfortunately, the internal revenue code can limit this matching concept when it may hurt a t/p most.

D&T - The trust fund portion (which is not even able to be obsolved in bankruptcy as we all know) of the employee p/r taxes would be shown as a current liability on the cash basis f/s (and I tend to use income tax basis of accounting for f/s reporting with no notes) that I would issue and it would be those same f/s that would and do get reviewed in the peer review which I have always passed with flying colors.

Deback - if the IRS preferred for cash basis t/p's to deduct er p/r taxes before they were actually paid - I very much doubt it would be one of those best kept secrets and the CPA community would certainly know about it. During our years of training by the "partners" they would not have had to write so many silly review comments over and over on this very issue.

I for one do not want to make this or any other subject on this board a CPA versus non CPA issue. We are all here to help each other and learn and assist those newer to the profession with answers to their questions. Heck, I have only been in public accounting 23 years so I still have lots to learn. We are all each others peers with sincere intentions and health opinions.

Unfortunately, at this point based on all that I know and have read - on a true cash basis method of accounting - employer p/r taxes are not a tax deduction until paid.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
For what it's worth, I'm talking about the modified cash basis method, not the true cash basis method. Also, I didn't intend to make this subject a CPA vs non-CPA issue. I'm just surprised that so many others disagree with this common method of recording payroll taxes on the cash basis.

JR1 (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
But there is no true cash method taxpayer! There will be fixed assets at least! And in the small biz world where I've lived 95% of my pro life, it's standard practice...and c'mon...isn't this Intermediate Accounting?...Dr. Gross Wages Dr. PR tax expense(s) Cr. Accrued Tax Cr. Cash. That's how it's always done. And if insurance is withheld you Cr. Insurance expense and if child support/SIMPLE/401K...Cr. to the appropriate Accrual accounts for those. Right off the payroll journal in basic training, or if Paychex/ADP/QB off the Payroll Journals they provide...or our own. That's just fundamental accounting for this stuff. I don't know why the big accounting world would have ever treated it differently....OK, I said I was done, you made me lie. Let's have a beer and trim the jib.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
Here, here. I agree with Michael. Especially on his point about it not becoming a CPA vs non-CPA issue. Tax laws are the same for all, and except for Riley (and maybe WesR), all of us are correct on less than 100% of the issues we post on. This just happens to be one of those times for JR, Deb, D&T :) Since we've been around the block on most of the points here, I won't rehash. But I would like to pick up one point pertaining to sales tax that correlates to our discussion here. Sales taxes are logically shown as a liability on the balance sheet even for a cash basis taxpayer because the taxes are not paid by the taxpayer, they are collected by the t/p from his/her customers and held in trust, payable to the state. Therefore, it is not an issue of when sales taxes are "deducted" since if they are correctly accounted for, they are never deducted because they never are recognized as income in the first place. (Since we seem to be obsessed with debits and credits in this discussion, debit cash $110, credit sales $100, credit sales tax payable $10). In the same way, when the ER pays the net PR check to the EE, he gets a deduction for the gross wage and credits PR Taxes Payable for the EE withholding. These funds are held in trust by the ER. Well, got to go now, enough on this topic.

Deback (talk|edits) said:

January 13, 2007
JR - This is actually Accounting Principles, at least it was in 1970, when I took that class. Since I've been unable to find anything about this at the IRS site or on the web (except for the forum links I posted way up above), I have to think that I learned this method when I took the Accounting Principles class--plus I know I read it in some IRS pub at some time. So, it's not really a tax issue but a general accounting issue. The example shown in the Niswonger textbook is exactly as I've been describing (dr expense and cr payables on the date wages were paid), with no distinction between cash or accrual basis in the textbook. So, I'll continue to do it the way I've always done it, based on how I was taught (gotta follow the consistency rule, which is the only requirement when choosing either method).

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

13 January 2007
As I stated earlier in this discussion, p/r taxes are NOT ACCRUALS!

The employer becomes liable for ALL of them as of the date of the p/r! THESE ARE A CURRENT LIABILITY!

The employer becomes liable for BOTH the EE tax w/h and the ER tax due on the p/r.

Many computer programs and o/s p/r services compute them as of the p/r date. However, we may book them on a monthly or quarterly basis even though it is a current liability as of the p/r date.

Cash basis books must pick up the CURRENT LIABILITY and expense, even if it's not paid during the period.

Cash basis books would not however pick up a p/r that started 12/26 and paid 1/2 of the following year. That would be an accrual adj. That would be considered a Jan p/r for the cash basis.

This is not a discussion about cc purchases. However, the same idea is true. If you may purchases in Dec and the cc is not paid until Jan, the Dec purchases are considered a current liability. dr. expenses cr. cc payable It is the recording of a current liability, not an accrual. You become liable for the payment when the purchase is made.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2007
The distinction with a credit card is that the vendor has been paid. The liability is no different than a loan payable. The question here is not whether you consider the payroll taxes a current liability, but whether a cash basis taxpayer is allowed an adjustment to income for an amount he had the opportunity to pay before the close of the year and chose not to. D&T notes an audit disallowance in a case of current liability. (The vendor was not paid.)

VbmulkCPA (talk|edits) said:

28 January 2007
I don't know if you guys have come to a conclusion yet but this is from a well known tax research software:

"A cash basis employer deducts (as ordinary and necessary business expenses) taxes withheld from an employee's compensation in the taxable year in which the taxes are withheld. The fact that the taxes withheld (i.e., the taxes on the employees) are not actually paid to or deposited with IRS until the following tax year does not change this result.

However, Social Security and unemployment taxes imposed on the employer for compensation paid to employees are not deductible by a cash basis employer until actually paid to the government"

Sandysea (talk|edits) said:

28 January 2007
HELLO!!!! Thank you Vb.....

Dheistein (talk|edits) said:

10 March 2008
I've been doing a lot of research on this topic.

I can't find consenus on this question from other online posting boards among tax pros.

Looks like this is incorrect based on:

Rev. Rul. 80-164

INCOME TAX WITHHOLDING, FICA, AND FUTA; WHEN DEDUCTIBLE

                           Published: June 23, 1980

26 CFR 1.461-1: General rule for taxable year of deduction

(Also Section 162; 1.162-1.)

 Income tax withholding, FICA, and FUTA; when deductible. An employer who uses the cash receipts and disbursements method of accounting should deduct, under section 162 of the Code, as wages paid, federal taxes withheld from employees' wages in the year such taxes are withheld. FICA and FUTA taxes imposed on the employer are deductible in the year paid to the U.S.

Here's the link:

http://www.taxlinks.com/rulings/1980/revrul80-164.htm (link may no longer be active; try legalbitstream instead)

If this is the case, this would bring about a tax planning issue for clients to pre-pay their 12/31 payroll liabilities on 12/31 instead of depositing the following month for monthly depositors.

Any thoughts?

DeacDiggler (talk|edits) said:

10 March 2008
I can't believe so many people think that's NOT the case. The difference between this issue and a credit card payment is that the use of a credit card is simply a borrowing to pay an expense. There's no borrowing going on here.

See James W. Tippin; 104 TC 518:

We now turn to the third issue, which concerns the deductibility of the FUTA taxes and of the employer's portion of the FICA taxes. Secs. 3301, 3111. Petitioner incurred liability for these taxes with respect to wages paid to the employees of his law practice. On Schedule C of their tax returns, petitioners deducted these taxes for the year in which the liability accrued (i.e., the year in which the wages were paid), even though petitioner did not pay the tax until a later year. Petitioners argue that this treatment was proper and was in compliance with section 1.461-1(a)(1) and (3), Income Tax Regs. We disagree. Section 1.461-1(a)(1), Income Tax Regs., provides deductions for depreciation, amortization, depletion, and losses under sections 167, 611, and 165. Nothing in section 1.461-1(a)(3), Income Tax Regs., allows a cash basis taxpayer to deduct a tax before the year of payment. See also Rev. Rul. 74-70, 1974-1 C.B. 116 (for cash basis taxpayers, FICA and FUTA taxes are deductible for the tax year in which they are paid). Accordingly, petitioners may not deduct either the FUTA taxes or petitioner's share of FICA taxes until the year in which he paid such taxes.

D'Nero (talk|edits) said:

10 March 2008
For what it's worth: The CPA firm I used to work for deducted ER-FICA and FUTA/SUTA in the year paid. The position taken, as stated above, is that the vendor hasn't been paid. Usually, this is immaterial when dealing with cash basis tax payers.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

March 10, 2008
I have no authority to cite, but I've worked for CPA's, and I've seen on returns prepared by other professionals, the deduction for payroll taxes (incl FUTA) in the year incurred. Even if not paid until the following year.

And I remember reading/hearing in a seminar(long long ago, in a galaxy far far away), that as long as the taxpayer is consistent in the approach, the IRS accepts the accrual of payroll taxes for cash basis taxpayers. Wish I had something more concrete.

DeacDiggler (talk|edits) said:

10 March 2008
you may want to read that Tippin case then, because that and the Rev Rul right before it are the only authority cited on this discussion, and both disagree with deduction before payment.

KatieJ (talk|edits) said:

11 March 2008
As I tell my tax research students: "Everybody does it" is not authority.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

March 11, 2008
Nor was I advocating such an approach. Just sharing what I've been exposed to in the real world, working with some well respected professionals. If/when I find the documentation for what my memory led me to post - I'll share here.

DeacDiggler (talk|edits) said:

11 March 2008
Gotcha. Sorry I implied otherwise.

Belle (talk|edits) said:

March 11, 2008
Thanks, I'm tired and testy, and irritated that I can't find any documentation for something I KNOW I've seen in writing from a reliable source (even if it isn't IRS Code, Regs, whatever!

Unless I'm halucinating...it's always a possibility during March.

And wouldn't be the first thing I've found on this forum that proved the prior way of doing it where I used to work was incorrect.

Jdugancpa (talk|edits) said:

11 March 2008
It's nice to be shown to have been correct, even a year later.  :)

Belle (talk|edits) said:

March 11, 2008
Wouldn't know - yet - I'm too busy being wrong all the time.

Arman barsamian (talk|edits) said:

26 February 2009
See the Bascos Case, TC Memo 2008-294

1 2

An accrual basis taxpayer may accrue and expense employer payroll taxes in the period incurred, if the recurring item exception is met under Reg Section 1.446-1(c)(1)(ii). A cash basis taxpayer may only deduct payroll excise taxes when paid as also confirmed in Revenue Ruling 80-164. A cash basis tax payer may only accrue a narrow listed of taxes, specifically enumerated by Section 164(a). A hybrid taxpayer, if in compliance with the hybrid accounting rules, can elect to treat the employers' payroll excise tax account as an accrual. Note, a hybrid taxpayer must treat all income accounted under the accrual method in order to enjoy the benefit of accruals in any expense account per Reg 1.446-1(c)(1)(1)(iv)(a) and held in Connors, Inc (1979) 71 TC 913. Also, see Howard Brunton (1982) 82 TC 166 for additional support.

II. Deductibility of Payroll Taxes Section 164(a) permits taxpayers to deduct specified taxes. Excise taxes--like Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA) taxes and the employer’s share of Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) taxes--are not enumerated on the list of specified taxes and are deductible only if they constitute ordinary and necessary business expenses. See secs. 162, 212; see also sec. 1.164-2(f), Income Tax Regs.3

III. Accounting Method A taxpayer is required to compute taxable income “under the method of accounting on the basis of which the taxpayer regularly computes his income in keeping his books.” Sec. 446(a).4 Similarly, a taxpayer must claim deductions in the proper tax year under that taxpayer’s method of accounting. Sec. 461(a). “The accounting methods most commonly used for income tax purposes are the cash receipts and disbursements method, and the accrual method.” Irby v. Commissioner, 30 T.C. 1166, 1174 (1958), affd. 274 F.2d 208 (5th Cir. 1960). The cash receipts and disbursements method is commonly referred to as the “cash method”. A cash method taxpayer must deduct expenditures for the tax year in which they are actually made. See sec. 1.446-1(c)(1)(i), Income Tax Regs. The standard is more complex for an accrual method taxpayer--“a liability is incurred, and generally is taken into account for Federal income tax purposes, in the taxable year in which all the events have occurred that establish the fact of the liability, the amount of the liability can be determined with reasonable accuracy, and economic performance has occurred with respect to the liability.” Sec. 1.446-1(c)(1)(ii), Income Tax Regs.

Blrgcpa (talk|edits) said:

26 February 2009
Payroll taxes become a current liability on the date the payroll is paid. This is not an accrual adjustment.

Just think about the je to record the payroll.

Arman barsamian (talk|edits) said:

26 February 2009
Yes, sir, that is the Accounting 101 journal entry and I have no dispute with that.

Kindly, provide any citation by a controlling authority that is worthy of of avoiding the negligence penalty, that allows this journaled expense to be an allowable current period income tax expense.

Furthermore, in considering the journal entry: it is prima facia an accrual. The debit to payroll tax expense and credit to a payroll tax liability is indicative of its accrued nature. Later, a debit to the liability and credit to cash will clear that particular accrued liability. A cash journal entry would be a debit to payroll tax expense and a credit to cash.

Very respectfully,

Arman Barsamian

Scott B (talk|edits) said:

19 March 2010
I don't see any real conflict between the participants' positions as expressed in this discussion. A client reporting on a purely cash basis may only claim the deduction when paid. The IRS allows for special exceptions to the cash paid = deduction assumption, however, in certain cases when the constructive receipt principle applies. Credit card expenses are the most widely known exception - the expense becomes immediately deductible because the client's obligation to the vender has ceased (i.e. the vender has constructive receipt of payment). That the client has yet to pay the credit card company for those same expenses is incidental. This also holds with the deductibility of withheld payroll taxes. The mistake made by some is mistaking the IRS to be the vender. The actual vender in this instance is the employee, who has been effectively paid by the employer a gross salary which includes any tax deductions made. That constitutes receipt of the withheld taxes by the employee just as if a credit card company instead of the IRS was involved. On the other hand the employer's matching contributions constitute a direct liability to the IRS and thus not deductible for cash purposes (as the IRS has not received payment constructive or otherwise). You have to be accounting on an accrual basis order to claim these expenses the same year the liability was created rather than when paid.

Using constructive receipt to claim cash expenses, however, is necessarily limited by regulation because arguably most expenses can be claim under this principle (ex. unpaid mortgage interest is constructively received if the mortgage lender has sufficient security in the collateral to guarantee the debt's ultimate payment; plus the fact that the lender starts earning income on it the moment it's added to the loan balance). All this is possible because, after all, cash basis accounting is a fictional concept in today's world - and accordingly GAAP insists that proper accounting be done on the accrual basis.

This all comes with caveats of course. Administratively speaking the IRS treats a taxpayer using these modifications and the other allowed exceptions as included under the umbrella of "cash basis" repoerting so long as they've been applied consistently. If not then you're going to have to file Form 3115 to report the tax implications of the change.

P.S. If you can cite a case supporting your position that hasn’t been overturned by a higher court such as Arman Barsamian’s Bascos Case then you’re golden in regards to any negligence penalty. They are, after all, the ultimate authority when it comes to taxes.

Scott B 21:29, 18 March 2010 (CDT)

  • discussion was bumped 2/18/13 by User:MIKEB, who posted a few more times but ultimately removed this bumping post....

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Not sure why you're responding to a 2-year old post. Maybe you were researching it under the belief that your method has been wrong for 25-years, which it is.


Podolin (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Show me something in the code that says you can deduct the unpaid gross wage but not the upaid taxes. When you pay someone on 12/31 $1,000 gross wage and net of $500, you have only paid $500. If it were trully cash basis you would only be allowed a $500 deduction. MIKEB, think of it this way. On Dec 31, if you pay the employee $500 after having withheld $500 in withholding taxes, the employee has constructively received the entire $1,000, and you have received back from the employee $500 that you are holding in trust. Same as a retail sale in which you sell a $1,000 item and collect $60 in sales tax, which $60 is not yours. It is held in trust. Even if you do not pay that $60 until the next taxable year, it is not income to you because it was never your money. Neither was the $500 that you withheld from the employee. Distinguish that from the unpaid employer share of FICA or FUTA. The employee never receives it. The employer never puts it in trust, out of his control. The employer just pays it, and if that payment occurs in the next taxable year, that is when it is deducted.

Those words may not appear in the Code, but that is pretty clear law to me. Again, assuming cash basis all the way.


Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Not sure why you're resonding if you have nothing intelligent to add. I'm responding to inform you that (1) your unintelligent post is ridilicious and (2) there is nothing to add. Everyone that posted before you cited the relevant law, which you apparently wish to ignore, at the peril of every one of your cash basis clients that have accrued and deducted an expense. To believe that a withheld tax (a liability) of a cash basis taxpayer should be treated identically to an accrued expense of a cash basis taxpayer is ridilicious.

No one here is arguing that "cash basis" means "pay cash" to get a deduction every single time. There are plenty of examples, including the purchase of an asset with a non-recourse note, will get you a deduction "on the cash" cash when no "cash" was outlaid. And Lenny just gave another example, in the reverse, of sales tax collected.

What you are doing is arguing that since a grossed-up wage is allowable as a deduction, even though not fully paid, this gives free license to deduct any expense of a cash basis taxpayer, even when such expense is not paid. I think you'll find that everyone on this forum will disagree with your logic, if we can call it that.


Podolin (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
MIKEB, the IRS does not challenge your clients who report gross sales including sales tax because that results in prepaying the tax. Why would you do that?

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
I don't care about my website, it ain't broken, and I haven't updated it in 12-years or so. I simply have to look "up to date" or "up with the times" - and you are neither.

Maybe you shouldn't post here and tell the forum readers to "Deduct it!" because MikeB, who knows nothing and who chooses to ignore the clear (and rather fair and logical authority) told you to.

MIKEB (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Podolin, I was refering to the payroll tax as not ever being challenged in audit. I have worked in 3 firms in 27 years and no firm or CPA I worked with broke out employer vs employee taxes payable for cash basis it is deminimus and no one cares including the IRS.

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Why would you do that?

Because he doesn't know what he's doing, obviously.

I have no problem with MikeB's lack of knowledge, but he really should keep it to himself.

He was obviously doing some research in this area and was second-guessing his 25-year policy of deducting accrued expenses for cash basis taxpayers. Why else would he be responding to a post that is nearly 3-years old?

Now that he has learned that (1) there is guidance on this issue and (2) such guidance is contrary to what he's been doing for 25-years...he can't just be a man and own up to all of his mistakes. Instead, he wants to throw insults all over the place, search our websites, and research US, to see what he's up against. And what he's up against are people that know far more than him; people that find it typical for the "know it all" mistaken practitioner to toss insults about.

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
"the law cares not for small things." neither do I.

Now you're changing your tune a bit. Before, you argued that it was unclear and if the IRS cares, they would have provided guidance.

Well, there is guidance.

And now that you know, you ignore it (again) and base your mistaken position on "it's a small thing, let's not worry about it."

Again, typical of the "know it all" mistaken practitioner.

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
Just some anal accountants.

Call us anal. We don't care.

Seems your the anal one. You see, we don't do anything with the accrued expenses of our cash basis clients. Seems that you are anal in that you go out and find them, accrue them up and spend time to book up these "bogus" deductions.

Podolin (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
I don't know what has happened to the posts, but (1) a Ckenefick post now appears under my name; (2) a post wherein MIKEB said he always reported sales as including the sales tax has disappeared; and (3) the part of my post that asks why one would do that type of sales reporting has disappeared. Unless it's just my poor eyesight.

Spell Czech (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
I thought I heard one of these guys say "You date pregnant hookers and your dinosaur eats grass" but I'm not sure which one it was...

Ckenefick (talk|edits) said:

18 February 2013
I'm sure MikeB has gone back in to do some editing. He was not portraying himself in a positive light at all, you know, with the making up of his own rules and telling us to cheat on tax returns.

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