Discussion:Disability as a credit?

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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> Disability as a credit?

Jokadah (talk|edits) said:

19 March 2006
I have a client whose coworker was found to be 12.75% permanently disabled by the Workers Comp Appeals Board. He deducts 12.75% of his wages on line 21 (other income) of his 1040. Has anyone heard of this? If so, could you please tell me where I can find more information on this? Thank you.

Tctaxserv (talk|edits) said:

March 19, 2006
Generally Workers’ compensation for an occupational sickness or injury if paid under a workers’ compensation act or similar law is not taxable and I've seen that Workers Comp. is reported separately on the w-2, meaning not included in box 1.

But you're saying that he gets a w-2 with no special code for WC, then subtracts the 12.75% because of the ruling?!? I have not heard of this, so I'm interested to find out more as well.

Jokadah (talk|edits) said:

19 March 2006
That's correct nothing on W-2, he's a correctional officer and they reclassified him to office duty because of his disability. He has not received worker's comp since 2001 and current tax preparer has taken this 12.75% negative amount and continues to list on line 21. I've never heard of this either and it would seem to me that a true credit would be listed elsewhere on the 1040 not as a negative figure under other income. I explained to my client that just because another tax preparer puts something on a tax return does not necesarily make it correct. If anyone has heard of this please enlighten me. Thank you.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

19 March 2006
Sounds like employer is self insured, so there wouldn't be a separate third party w-2. There should be a way to check with payroll department. Personally I've never had a problem taking a line 21 adjustment in cases where employer has not reported payroll deduction to insurance company and w-2 comes in at 100% taxable.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2006
In order to claim a worker's comp exclusion, the payment must be paid under a Worker's Comp statute. A correctional officer who is transferred to office duty would not be treated as receiving an amount under a worker's comp statute. The Tax Court has issued several rulings on this.

COLLEENK (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2006
Usually when an officer gets a disability rating he will get a cash settlement at the time. If he can continue to work his wages are taxed as normal. The disability rating may help him take a disability retirement at a later date. He can not exclude any of his regular wages.

Ztom (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2006
Total payments made by a California county to an employee under section 4850 and pursuant to section 4853 of the California Labor Code, because of an occupational injury or illness arising out of and in the course of the employee's duties are in the nature of and in lieu of workmen's compensation, and such payments are excludable from the employee's gross income under section 104(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. The payments are excludable even if they are in excess of the normal disability benefits payable under a workmen's compensation act.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

20 March 2006
Is this a great site or what? And we're dealing with someone else's client.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

14 January 2008
Correctional officers are state employees. I don't know if this matters or not but I am having trouble getting the definitive answer as to whether the amount of the permanent disability rating is excludable as income for an active correctional officer. In other words, a CO that earns $100,000 and has a permanent disability rating of 30% is able to deduct $30,000 on line 21. I say line 21 because that is where I have seen other CPA's and EA's take the deduction. I would like to help out my CO clients but I hate to lead them astray and have been searching long a hard for the answer. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

Thank you,

Pete

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
In order to qualify for an exclusion, the amounts must be paid under a worker's compensation statute. In other words, the amounts paid to the employee must be for on-the-job injuries or sickness. In the case you are describing, it appears that the employee must perform services in order to receive the $30,000 in question. If such is the case, no exclusion is available. See Rev. Ruling 80-137.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
Riley,

Thank you very much for the input. Here is the dilema we are facing. We had a correctional officer client audited for the same exact circumstance as I laid out above and that you have correctly identified. The IRS was dening the deduction. We argued that section 104(a)(1) applied. The IRS accepted that argument and allowed the deduction.

What do you make of that?

Any and all input will be greatly appreciated.

Thank you

Pete

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
In general (and I cannot speak specifically for California) the legislation that allows self-insurance is "a workers compensation statute." State versus county is most likely a meaningless quibble.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

15 January 2008
The majority of correctional officers that receive the permanent disability rating go back to their normal work duties. I don't know how that may apply to Rev Rulling 80-137.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Yes, in California state and county employees can qualify for a disability retirement based on occupational illness or injury. However, if the benefit received is contingent upon services rendered, there is no worker's comp benefit for tax purposes. Pete, let me know if you need itations to authority on this.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Riley,

The disability is not contingent upon services rendered. For example, an officer will break up a fight with an inmate and injure his leg. He files a claim with the worker's compensation board and is awarded $20,000. In addition he receives a permanent disability rating of let's say 18%. It is a common practice for some tax professionals to deduct 18% from the taxpayers gross income year after year. The 18% is calculated by taking 18% of box 1 on the W-2 and reporting as a deduction to gross income. I was very sceptical of taking this deduction for our correctional officer clients until it became an audit issue with one of our clients. We cited 104(a)(1) and the deduction was allowed.

Any help to find the definitve answer will be greatly appreciated, or do we have the definitive answer by way of the audit results.

Thanks Riley and anyone who can help,

Pete

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
In Morris v. Commissioner (TC Memo 1987-7), Deputy Sheriff Morris received a 7% disability rating from the Los Angeles Sheriff’s department due to a back injury sustained while on patrol. His accountant erroneously subtracted 7% of his salary from gross income. The Service disallowed the exclusion, and the Tax Court upheld the Service’s disallowance.

In Morris, the court reasoned that all salary payments received were for services rendered (instead of injuries) and were totally dependent thereon. In addition, the court held that the 7% excluded amount was not paid under a “worker’s compensation statute.”

Thus, if you can demonstrate that your client is receiving amounts over and above his regular salary to compensate him for on the job injuries, then you have at least a fighting chance to claim that the amounts were paid under a worker’s comp statute.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
Riley,

What do you make of the fact that one of our clients was audited for the same issue you described above and the deduction was allowed by the IRS.

This is very confusing to us and any light you could shed on it would be greatly appreciated.

Thank you for your last post and your assistence,

Pete

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

16 January 2008
I don't really expect the average IRS auditor to go home at night and read Tax Court cases or Revenue Rulings. Consequently, I don't make anything out of the agent's allowance of an unallowable exlusion.

If you want, you can send my post to the IRS auditor and see if he would like to reconsider his original position. My advice is to never look a gift horse in the mouth. If the IRS is letting you have an exclusion that is clearly not allowed under the tax law, I don't believe that you have any ethical responsibility to educate the auditor. In fact, it might even be malpractice to bring the Morris decision to the attention of the auditor.

What is interesting about the Morris case is that 4 deputies were included in the Morris decision. All 4 deputies worked out of the same Sheriff's substation, and I would be willing to bet that they all went to the same tax preparer. The tax preparer in question was probably on the hook for penalties and interest, but he probably got away with this scam on many occasions. The tax attorney for the taxpayer made a lame attempt to salvage the case by quoting California Labor Code Sec. 4850 which gives an injured public safety officer a one-year paid leave of absence before going on permanent disability. This was obviously not going to persuade the court since there was no leave of absence granted to any of the taxpayers.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

21 January 2008
Riley,

We have been researching this question for some time and have just come across Revenue Ruling 68-10.

Your input is much appreciated.

Pete

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

21 January 2008
RR 68-10 deals with California Labor Code Sec. 4850 which provides for a one-year leave of absence for officers who are injured on the job. This does not apply to officers who continue to work. See Morris v. Commissioner.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

21 January 2008
If client is paid his regular salary for doing work that would typically get lesser compensation, it would seem to me he is getting a premium.

Ourtuition (talk|edits) said:

22 January 2008
Does Sec. 4853 of the California Labor Code have any bearing on this case?

Ed

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

22 January 2008
An officer drawing under 4850 draws full pay for one-year while on leave of absence. Labor Code Sec. 4853 simply states that certain public safety officers who exhaust their 4850 time (one-year) are entitled thereafter to draw regular worker’s compensation benefits until their retirement, or the end of their disability.

Peteward (talk|edits) said:

22 January 2008
Riley,

How about this?

Internal Revenue Service Revenue Ruling

TaxLinks.com sm

Rev. Rul. 68-10

1968-1 C.B. 50

Sec. 104

Caution: Distinguished by Rev. Rul. 69-254

IRS Headnote

Total payments made by a California county to an employee under section 4850 and pursuant to section 4853 of the California Labor Code, because of an occupational injury or illness arising out of and in the course of the employee's duties are in the nature of and in lieu of workmen's compensation, and such payments are excludable from the employee's gross income under section 104(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954. The payments are excludable even if they are in excess of the normal disability benefits payable under a workmen's compensation act.

Full Text

Rev. Rul. 68-10

Advice has been requested whether payments made by a California county to an employee under section 4850 of the California Labor Code, because of occupational injury or illness arising out of and in the course of performance of the employee's duties are excludable from gross income under section 104(a)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954.

Section 4850 of the California Labor Code provides that whenever any city policeman, city fireman, sheriff or any officer or employee of a sheriff's office, or any inspector, investigator, detective or personnel with comparable title in any district attorney's office, who is a member of the State Employees' Retirement System is disabled by injury or illness arising out of and in the course of his duties, he shall become entitled, regardless of his period of service with the city or county, to leave of absence while so disabled without loss of salary, in lieu of normal temporary disability payments under this Code, for the period of not exceeding one year. This section excludes employees (other than city firemen) whose functions do not clearly come within the scope of active law enforcement service. It also excludes city firemen whose functions do not clearly fall within the scope of active fire fighting and prevention service.

Section 4853 of the California Labor Code provides that whenever such disability of any such officer or employee continues for a period beyond one year, such member shall thereafter be subject to disability indemnity under provisions of the California Labor Code other than section 4850 during the remainder of the period of said disability or until the effective date of his retirement under the State Employees' Retirement Act, and the leave of absence shall continue.

Section 104(a)(1) of the Code provides for the exclusion from gross income of amounts received under workmen's compensation acts as compensation for personal injuries or sickness.

Section 1.104-1(b) of the Income Tax Regulations states that section 104(a)(1) of the Code excludes from gross income amounts which are received by an individual under a workmen's compensation act or under a statute in the nature of a workmen's compensation act which provides compensation to the employees for personal injuries or sickness incurred in the course of employment.

In determining whether the payments made under section 4850 of the California Labor Code are actually workmen's compensation benefits, the California District Court of Appeals, Second District, in the case of Hawthorne v. City of Beverly Hills et al. , 245 P.2d 352 (1952), held that salary in lieu of temporary disability payments, to a fireman (under section 4850 of the California Labor Code) who is a member of the State Employees' Retirement System, is not salary as such, but is compensation within the meaning of the workmen's compensation act. This determination also covered that amount which exceeded normal disability benefits under the usual schedules for determining workmen's compensation.

The payments made under section 4850 of the California Labor Code are made because of injuries or illness arising out of and in the course of the employee's duties. The fact that the amount received is equal to the employee's salary does not prevent such payments from being compensation within the meaning of workmen's compensation.

Since these payments are compensation within the meaning of the workmen's compensation act, they cannot be considered payments provided by a wage continuation plan. Therefore, section 105(d) of the Code is not applicable.

Accordingly, the total payments made by a California County to an employee under section 4850 and pursuant to section 4853 of the California Labor Code because of an occupational injury or illness arising out of and in the course of the employee's duties are in the nature of and in lieu of workmen's compensation, and such payments are excludable from the employee's gross income under section 104(a)(1) of the Code. The payments are excludable even if they are in excess of the normal disability benefits payable under a workmen's compensation act.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

22 January 2008
See my comments above. I will repeat myself for emphasis. An officer drawing 4850 time is on a one-year fully paid leave of absence due to a service connected disability. An officer on "light duty" who continues to receive his regular salary cannot draw Sec. 4850 compensation.

Ourtuition (talk|edits) said:

23 January 2008
Is Sec 4850 compensation different from Sec. 4853 compensation?

thanks

ed

Ourtuition (talk|edits) said:

24 January 2008
Sec 4850 compenstaion vs Sec 4853 compensation?

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

24 January 2008
Yes, 4853 is a regular worker's compensation benefit which is not necessarily tied into the officer's regular salary and is paid after the 4850 time is exhausted. 4850 is a benefit equal to the officer's regular salary which is paid for a period of up to one-year. In both cases, the officer is absent from work for the period of disability.

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