Discussion:1031 Exchange question

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Discussion Forum Index --> Tax Questions --> 1031 Exchange question

Mg (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
Question. I hope I'm posting at the proper place. First time I'm using this forum.

Please verify if the following statement is correct.

Client A made a like kind exchange with property B. It had a zero basis and was sold for 300K. With the proceeds, plus an additional 450K he purchased new property C. Accordingly, the basis for property C is 450K. He wants to take out a mortgage on the new property for 800K and then give 50% of the property only, as a gift to his son who will be responsible for 50% of the mortgage.

Please confirm if the following statements are true.

A)Being that there is no step up in basis by the gift, the basis is 225K for Client A and 225K for his son or is there a different approach?

B)Client A's liability is 400k and his sons 400K

C)Being that the property is subject to the mortgage the gift has no value and is not subject to any gift tax filing

Solomon (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
Was the sale through a qualified intermediary? If not, he has no 1031 exchange.

Mg (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
The 1031 exchange was completed wiht an intermediary.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
If the gift is made within close proximity in time to the exchange, I think you have a gain recognition problem since the Dad effectively acquired trade or investment property with an FMV of only $225,000, resulting in $75,000 in boot. My answwer would change if the taxpayer waited at least 2 years before making the gift.

Mg (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
Riley2, thnaks for your answer. Please elaborate. Why would 2 years make a difference? Why do I need to calculate 50% of the addiitonal proceeds when giving 50% as a gift to his son when his son is assuming the liability?

WesR (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
Hi ,A)held basis will be a total $450K agree would be split for gift
   B)if loan is set up like that yes but chances are father takes loan out he will be        liable for full amount to bank. Son wont be on loan? If son is on loan bank will want both 100%.
   C)If mortgage equals full FMV of property no gift

I dont understand riley2 results post exchange refinance does not result in boot per my qualified intermediary literature nor does a waiting period apply to a post exchange refi. I am also missing why the timing of the gift should matter from an income tax point. So hammer away riley2. Unless there is gain due to debt relief I dont see how this will happen with a bank in the real world. bye

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
The replacement property must be held by the taxpayer for trade or investment purposes. Property held by the son does not qualify.

The Tax Court held in CLICK v. COMMISSIONER, 78 TC 225 that property received in an exchange would not qualify for 1031 treatment if it was gifted seven months after the exchange.

WesR (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
Hi interesting I never had to address post exchange gift before. thanks bye

Scot1 (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
I'm looking at this as a gift of encumbered property....

When encumbered property is transferred by gift to a donee, the determination of the transferor's potential income recognition depends on whether the donee is a charity. This distinction arises because different basis rules apply under Sec. 1011 to transfers of property to noncharities and charities.

Noncharitable Donees

When a taxpayer transfers property for less than its fair market value (FMV) other than in a business context, the transfer is a gift to the extent the FMV exceeds the proceeds the transferor received. (1) Thus, when a donor receives nothing in exchange for a transfer, the amount of the gift for transfer tax purposes is the property's FMV. (2) On the other hand, a gift of encumbered property is valued for gift tax purposes as the excess of the property's FMV at the time of the gift over any debt to which the property is subject. (3) The liability encumbering the property is deemed consideration paid to the transferor, resulting in a part-gift and part-sale. (4) Regs. Sec. 1.1001-1 (e) provides that on transfers of property to a noncharity that result in a part-gift and part-sale, the donor realizes income to the extent the proceeds received (i.e., the liability encumbering the property) exceed the donor's adjusted basis.

Example: D transferred a parcel of land to her son, S. At the time of the transfer, the land's FMV was $300,000; D's adjusted basis was $150,000. The land is encumbered by a $175,000 mortgage.

The transfer of the encumbered land is treated as a part-gift and part-sale. D must recognize $25,000 of income ($175,000 mortgage) less $150,000 (adjusted basis)) on the gift, because the mortgage is treated as proceeds D received. The gift is $125,000 ($300,000 FMV - $175,000 mortgage).

In your situation Mg, property C has the following, in the hands of the transferor: FMV = $375,000, Adjusted Basis = $225,000, Mortgage = $400,000

The transferor will recognize income of $175K ($400K mortgage) less $225K (adjusted basis). The value of the gift is $0 ($375K FMV - $400K mortgage).

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

26 May 2006
The mortgage is post exchange. Riley's gain recognition is (as always) correct. The gift, however, is interesting. The $800,000 mortgage has to be based on an appraisal which, if accurate, would override purchase price for fair market value.

Dennis (talk|edits) said:

27 May 2006
I guess the point becomes who gets the mortgage proceeds. Re-reading, Scott's point is valid. Not the greatest tax plan for Dad.

Riley2 (talk|edits) said:

27 May 2006
Mg, the net result of everything that happened is that the Dad did a 1031 exchange out of property B for a 50% undivided interest in property C. This would result in $75,000 of boot. The other 50% of property B does not qualify as Sec. 1031 property since Dad did not "hold" it as investment property for a sufficient length of time.

Scot1 (talk|edits) said:

27 May 2006
I agree with you Riley2 - if the facts are that property B was exchanged for property C (50% interest). The facts were unclear to me; I read the facts to be that property B was property received in an exchange for some other like-kind property, then it was subsequently sold for $300K and the proceeds ($300K) plus another $450K was used to purchase property C - and not 1031 exchange between B/C.

WillyB (talk|edits) said:

27 May 2006
For the gift of the 1/2 interest which is outside of 1031 under the assumptions made thus far, and assuming son assumes 1/2 of the 800k indebtedness, father would recognize 175k of gain, as per Scot1 above.

So this transaction in total, if carried out, would result in gain to father of 75k + 175k = 250k .

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